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Please support your claims with corroborating evidence i.e. links to published, peer-reviewed sources that categorically show that milk cotains lactases.

Why I am sceptical is that, if these lactases are functional, why is there any lactose left in the milk? They would have degraded it. And moreover, when it goes through the human I tract, the low pH in the stomach will denature the enzyme every bit as effectively as the high temperature of pasteurisation.

So I don't believe you... but I'm willing to consider evidence that you are right, if you have any...